I know that Davis and Tim were salary swaps, but that doesn't explain why Curry is reportedly getting something like a contract that starts with him getting $10 million a year when the other two players were Sweetney and Jermaine Jackson. It just doesn't add up mathematically. Doesn't it have to be that Curry receives the minimum qualifying offer of whatever it was, $5 million, or something like that?

I also thought that someone was BYC making it harder to trade them.

I know it doesn't make sense, but maybe part of the "deal" was that we have to waive Davis so that Chicago has a chance to get him back, a la Gary Payton. Of course, unless someone else picks him up. I know the league changed the rule to make it harder to do that, but I don't think it's impossible. I suspect they think no one is going to go after Davis on the waiver wire anyway.

I also understand they don't have to match up exactly, which is how it was before the new CBA as well, but thanks for bringing up that it is now within 25%. It used to be within 15%, if both teams are over the cap I believe, but when a player is BYC those rules are different. I don't recall draft picks ever being given monetary value when calculating these figures.

I think it sounds more likely that Curry will not be getting $10 mil to start, but will make that as the contract goes on. I also recall that the new CBA lowered the raise percentage a player could earn in a new contract from something like 12% to 10% per year, which confuses things more, in terms of Curry making over $10 a season in only a short number of years.

Of course, I could be wrong, but the numbers just don't seem to work with him starting at $10 mil.